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So in this lecture, we'll be discussing an important topic in Arima theory, which is converting between

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different models.

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So throughout this course, you've learned about various different models, such as a. m. a va voom

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and so forth.

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We've discussed these models as if they are different, but in fact, they are the same to some degree.

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In this lecture, you learn how to convert a model from one form to another.

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For example, how to convert an R to an May answer to a VA.

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Now, we could have started this discussion in the arena section, but I think it gives you a better

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overall picture when you can incorporate vector models as well.

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So let's start with a scale or time series, suppose that we have an air one, this is equal to some

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byas term plus five times the previous value of Y plus the error at time t, but note that this equation

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is a recurrence.

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Therefore, just as we can express Y of T in terms of T minus one, we can express C, T minus one in

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terms of T minus two.

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So we can plug in the expression for Y of T minus one in terms of Y of T minus two.

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The next step is to simplify this expression, so now you can see that we have T minus two now has a

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squared coefficient and two different error terms appear.

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Of course, we can just do this again and replace Y of T minus two in terms of Y of T minus three.

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After we expand this, we see that we get another term, another error term, and the coefficient in

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front of Y of T minus three is now five one to the power of three.

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The next step is to consider what happens if we repeat this pattern, an infinite number of times.

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So when we repeat this pattern, an infinite number of times, we end up with three terms, the first

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term involves be multiplied by one over every integer power from zero to infinity.

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Note that since B appears in all of these terms, it can be factored out.

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The next term I want to look at is the last term, which involves the sum of all past errors.

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Now, in a typical model, this would only sum up.

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Q But in this case?

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Q is infinite.

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However, this doesn't change the fact that we still have a weighted sum of past errors.

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The final term we have involves the limit of one to the power K times Y of T minus K as K approaches

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infinity.

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I mentioned this one last because it's kind of a pesky term that we want to go away, but it only goes

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away if we make further assumptions.

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For example, if the value of the Time series is just zero beyond a certain point in the past, then

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clearly this whole thing would be zero.

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Or if the magnitude of PHY is less than one, this term would also approach zero.

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However, these details are not really too much of a concern, we can just pretend it's zero or constant

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without too much trouble.

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The main point to realize is that this is an M.

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Infiniti model.

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We have a bias term and we have a linear combination of past era terms.

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Therefore, in error, one is equivalent to an M infinity.

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Now, just in case you're curious, in the final line here, I have assumed that the middle term is

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zero and we use the summation formula from calculus to simplify the summation.

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And clearly, this is just a number.

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So it's considered a bias term.

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The next model I want to consider is an M1, so let's begin by writing down the formula for M1.

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You'll notice that I've written the parameters with these prime symbols.

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This is because the trick here is to write them a one in a different form.

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Specifically, we're going to bring all the terms to the other side in order to express Epsilon T in

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terms of everything else.

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Now we have a normal SI and a normal theta one which are just negative C prime and negative theta one

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prime.

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So the trick is to use this recurrence instead.

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For the next step, we can replace Epsilon at T minus one with an expression in terms of Epsilon of

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T minus two, and we can do this because we just found a recurrence that allows us to do this.

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And this should seem familiar because it's exactly the same kind of substitution we just used after

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expanding this.

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We now have to y terms to see terms and one error term a time T minus two.

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The next step, of course, is to replace the Epsilon at T minus two term with an expression in terms

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of Epsilon at T minus three.

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After expanding this expression, we get three wide terms, three terms and the error term at time T

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minus three.

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OK, so clearly this is the same kind of pattern we had before.

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So, again, if we extend this an infinite number of times, we get an expression with three terms,

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the first term is an infinite weighted sum of was.

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The second term is just the constant, since theta one is constant and see is also constant.

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Note that I've used the infinite summation formula.

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Once again, the final term is the limit, which again for simplicity will assume a zero.

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Now, remember that our Time series is Y of T, not Epsilon of T.

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So in order to get back, we have T we can simply pull it out of the summation.

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Now the summation starts at K equals one instead of equals zero.

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The next step is to move everything to the other side into a form we can more easily recognize, as

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you can see, we have a constant term, plus an infinite sum of lag terms, plus the usual error.

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Thus, this is in r infinity.

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OK, so we've just shown the equivalence between ARMM, the next step is to think of vector auto regressions.

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In fact, for part of this, there's really no more work to do.

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We can just use the same kind of mathematical substitutions to show that VAR one is the same as Vermes

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Infinity.

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Likewise, we can show that PVM one is the same as VAR Infinity.

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The only difference is that instead of multiplying scalars by scalars, you'll be multiplying matrices

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by vectors, but intuitively you should be able to see that the same math applies.

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The interesting part, I think, is to show that an AARP can be expressed as a VA, want to see how

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this can be done?

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It's easiest to start with an actual process.

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In this case, we have to coefficients five one in five to note that for the following slides, you'll

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notice that these formulas look a little different.

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This is because the program I normally use to make equations does not work with matrices.

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So in order to have matrices, I had to use a different program, which is what you're seeing here.

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In fact, if you read a lot of papers, this will probably look more similar to what you're used to.

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So suppose we create a new vector, which is just a vector containing both YFC and YFC minus one.

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We can then write the VA one model in terms of this whole vector instead of just Y of T.

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So as an exercise, I recommend going backwards and expanding this matrix equation on paper for the

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top row when you multiply this out.

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You should get back to the original R two for the bottom row when you multiply it out.

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You should get back to the trivial equation.

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Y of T minus one equals y t minus one and of course recognize that this new vector equation is of our

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one.

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One way to see this, if it's not already clear, is the use substitution.

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So suppose that we let the Vector ZT be equal to a vector containing YFC and Y of T minus one.

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We can let the prime be A vector containing B and zero.

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We can let capital thig be a matrix containing five one five to one and zero, and we can let eight

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to be a vector containing Epsilon C and zero.

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So when we do this, the equation becomes precisely the definition of a var one.

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The trick is seeing that Z of T minus one is a vector containing Y of T minus one and Y of T minus two.

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So let's now try this strategy again for three, so this time we'll create a vector with three components

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containing YFC, YFC minus one and YFC minus two.

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Again, we do the same thing where we express the top row as the original Air Three and the next two

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rows as dummy equations.

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So if you multiply out the bottom two rows, you should get the trivial equations.

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YFC minus one equals YFC minus one and YFC minus two equals YFC minus two.

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And again, note that this vector model is of our one.

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So an even better trick is to show that we can do the same thing, not just with an AARP, but with

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a VIP.

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So let's start with a VA three.

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This is just like what we had before, except now with matrices and vectors.

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So the first step, again, is to concatenate Y of T, Y of C minus one and Y of T minus two into a

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bigger vector.

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So this new vector would be three times the size as each individual y.

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The next step follows the same pattern where the top row becomes the original VARE three and the next

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two rows are dummy equations.

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But note that now instead of having ones, we have eyes, as you recall, any matrix times eye, which

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is the identity matrix, just gives you back the same original matrix.

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So what we have shown is any VPE can be expressed as of our one, except that the vector has become

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P times larger.

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So what have we just shown?

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We've shown that both AARP and VA can be expressed as VA one and of course, as we saw earlier, this

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can be expressed as VA infinity.

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Now, one thing we didn't go through is to show that McHugh and the VA make you can be expressed as

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VA one.

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So as an exercise, you can show that this is true by applying the same tricks we learned earlier in

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this lecture.

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But we also know that PVM one can be expressed as VA infinity.

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So we've sort of completed the cycle between VA to FEMA and back again.

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Now, again, this lecture is optional, so if you don't care about this sort of thing, that's OK.

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But to be clear, this is a typical part of any college level time series course.

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So it's something worth knowing.

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Just keep in mind that this leads to a lot more math that we could do, which eventually leads to practical

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applications.

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At this time, we won't look into these things since they require a lot more linear algebra.

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But this at least exposes you to more possibilities.
